Impedence vs. Sensitivity
02-10-2004 | 04:03 AM
#1
Why is it a lower impedence speaker usually has a higher sensitivity than one with a higher impedence?
A sample spec sheet for reference; http://www.orioncaraudio.com/subwoof..._H2_series.asp
A sample spec sheet for reference; http://www.orioncaraudio.com/subwoof..._H2_series.asp
02-10-2004 | 01:54 PM
#2
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Sensitivity is measured too many ways to take straight up at face value but most companies that measure with "1watt @ 1metre" define a watt as 2.87volts.
Now that is indeed a watt, at 8 ohms.. So at 4 ohms you have 2 watts and at 2 ohms you have 4 watts.
Double the power is a theoretical 3db in output so it skews the rating.
Be careful with 'sensitivity' ratings as the testing procedure can vary from brand to brand.
Now that is indeed a watt, at 8 ohms.. So at 4 ohms you have 2 watts and at 2 ohms you have 4 watts.
Double the power is a theoretical 3db in output so it skews the rating.
Be careful with 'sensitivity' ratings as the testing procedure can vary from brand to brand.
02-10-2004 | 05:55 PM
#3
Thanks Dukk.
I was told long ago not to take sensitivity numbers too seriously between brands but inside a single brand it is worth noting.
I thought that testing at 1w@1m would be equal for any speaker impedence.
That is, a 4ohm resistence would recieve 1w and a 2ohm resistence would receive 1w.
Thanks for clearing that up.
I was told long ago not to take sensitivity numbers too seriously between brands but inside a single brand it is worth noting.
I thought that testing at 1w@1m would be equal for any speaker impedence.
That is, a 4ohm resistence would recieve 1w and a 2ohm resistence would receive 1w.
Thanks for clearing that up.
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